Q1. The Theory X approach to managing workers is a classic example of a top-down view of how people should be managed.
Q2. Ensuring a one-to-one correspondence between specification items and general design items is a feature of:
a. Scope statement definition
b. WBS construction
c. Rapid prototyping
d. Configuration management
Q3. The resource planning tool that enables us to identify who we need to carry out what tasks is called:
a. A resource Gantt chart
b. A resource matrix (also called the responsibility chart)
c. A resource ogive
d. A resource loading chart (also called a resource histogram)
Q4. A major strength of task Gantt charts is that they can:
a. Offer a sophisticated model of a project
b. Show how many resources will be used on the project
c. Show the interdependencies of tasks
d. Show actual versus planned schedule status
Q5. Bottom-up estimates:
a. Are based on historical trends
b. Can be derived from the WBS
c. Must employ Monte Carlo simulation
d. a and c
Q6. Scope creep means:
a. Needs emergence and identification
b. Uncontrolled changes to a project's requirements during project execution
c. Migration of project needs to requirements
d. Imprecise scope statement
Q7. Definitive estimates are generally derived from:
a. Bottom-up estimates
b. Top-down estimates
c. Expert judgment cost estimates
d. Order of magnitude estimates
Q8. A key weakness of the Benefit-Cost ratio project selection mechanism is that:
a. It only focuses on things that can be measured
b. It takes time frame into consideration
c. It is too much based on subjective judgment
d. It does not entail prioritizing
Q9. The bottom-most level of the WBS -- the level at which project budget and schedule data are captured -- is called:
a. Work package
b. Code of accounts
c. Budget baseline
d. Change control level
Q10. An effective project manager must:
a. Tell his team members what to do
b. Be the most capable person on the team technically
c. Be focused on achieving results
d. Not trust his team members to achieve results without his personal attention to detail
Q11. Functional requirements provide us with detailed technical specifications.
Q12. Which of the following is an example of a project?
a. Maintaining e-mail addresses
b. Capacity planning
c. Submitting travel and expense reports
d. Sending monthly reports to top management
Q13. Which of the following shows resource allocation over time?
a. Resource Gantt chart
b. Resource matrix
d. Resource leveling
Q14. When we have objective data on the probability of an event, we are involved with decision making under certainty.
Q15. According to PMI, a WBS should focus on
c. Interrelationships among activities
d. Cost of the project
Q16. Top-down estimates (also called parametric estimates):
a. Are based on historical trends
b. Can be derived from the WBS
c. Can be determined by analyzing work packages
d. Provide accurate assessments of project costs
Q17. In risk management, insurance is an example of:
a. Risk avoidance
b. Risk deflection
c. Risk acceptance
d. Contingency planning
Q18. Rapid prototyping is a methodology for:
a. Specifying requirements at the outset and for controlling very tightly any changes to them
b. Specifying requirements at the outset and for facilitating later changes to them with minimum customer in put
c. Triggering early warning of unauthorized changes to the original prototype to enable project management to take remedial actions
d. Working closely with customers by creating and updating prototypes that respond to customer input
Q19. Under what conditions may a project manager accept a change request?
a. If the request has no effect on project objectives, deadlines, or resources
b. If the request has no effect on project objectives, although it has effects on deadlines and resources
c. If the request is coming from a valued customer
d. If the request is from the Chief Executive Officer
Q20. A modern view in Human Resource Management is that positive motivation results from an opportunity to achieve and experience self-actualization.
Q21. A challenge of the matrix project organization is that:
a. Team members are full of ego
b. Team members are selected from the same functional area
c. Team members have divided loyalties
d. It enables functional managers to provide career guidance to their workers
Q22. In resource planning, one of the issues that needs to be considered is:
a. Staff empowerment
b. Technical requirements of the project
c. Theory X management principles
d. Theory Y management principles
Q23. In project management, the level of uncertainty plays a major role in determining the adequacy of a project plan.
Q24. A work package is to be found at the summary level of the WBS.
Q25. If review of a project's status indicates that EV = $400, AC = $400, and PV = $500, the project is:
a. On budget, behind schedule
b. On budget, ahead of schedule
c. Over budget, behind schedule
d. Over budget, ahead of schedule
Q26. A laissez-faire management style may lead to a ship without rudder syndrome.
Q27. A project team structure that closely reflects the physical structure of the deliverable is known as:
Q28. An objective of prototyping is to minimize life-cycle cost.
Q29. A key objective of change control in configuration management is to keep track of actions taken in response to change requests.
Q30. Needs recognition is the first stage of the needs-requirement life cycle.
Q31. A tool that graphically shows cost variance is:
a. A chart of accounts
b. A code of accounts
c. A histogram (also called a resource loading chart)
d. A cumulative cost curve (also called S-curve)
Q32. Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate that sets the present value of cash outflow equal to the present value of cash inflow.
Q33. Structured Walk-Through is a methodology used in:
d. Project Evaluation
Q34. If you want to shorten the length of a project, you must:
a. Shorten the critical path
b. Shorten the free float
c. Spend more money
d. Cut back on the features you plan to deliver
Q35. Which of the following is a scope planning tool?
a. Benefit/cost analysis
c. Earned Value analysis
d. Fast tracking
Q36. A project can be terminated prematurely because the original objectives may no longer be valid.
Q37. When crashing a project, we typically choose critical path tasks whose costs of crashing are highest.
Q38. Using working time or elapsed time to calculate the time it will take to complete a task produces the same results.
Q39. Milestones, like tasks, consume resources.
Q40. A four step risk assessment process reflecting standard risk management good practice consists of:
a. Risk identification, Risk deflection, Risk impact analysis, Risk monitoring and control
b. b. Risk acceptance, Risk impact analysis, Risk response planning, Risk monitoring and control
c. Risk deflection, Contingency planning, Risk impact analysis, Risk monitoring and control
d. Risk identification, Risk impact analysis, Risk response planning, Risk monitoring and control
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